Marsh04 wrote: Is it not possible to write in the agreement that in case of liquidation all assets will be transferred to one specific shareholder given there are no liabilities? Or whatever is left after paying all liabilities would go to one specific shareholder?
I guess it is possible but why would you want or need to do that? If the company wants to use some property without owning it, isn't it simpler (not requiring to resort to rare legal constructions) to lease it? (or you formally sell the van or what ever to the company but instead of money receive something like an IOU)
If the van has been purchased with the money belonging to the company (or borrowed by it) then how could it belong to specific shareholder?